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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 09:31

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You hold the door open for a lady and she stops in her tracks and screams at you, ‘Don’t hold the door for me! I’ll get it myself!’ What are your feelings or immediate reaction?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.